NUMS 2nd year MBBS past papers for Biochemistry, Physiology and Anatomy subjects.
Use this page for NUMS 2nd year MBBS past paper-style revision across Biochemistry, Physiology, Anatomy (Gross Anatomy), Anatomy (Histology) and Anatomy (Embryology). Medricks helps students attempt MCQs and SEQs, read explanations, revisit wrong answers and track chapter progress.
Medricks NUMS second-year material is collected, organized, and reviewed by qualified PMDC-licensed doctors who graduated within the last 3 to 6 years. It is made for MBBS education and exam preparation, not clinical medical advice.
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NUMS 2nd year MBBS sample MCQs by subject and chapter
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NUMS 2nd year MBBS
Biochemistry sample MCQs
4 chapters with 20 free sample MCQs for NUMS 2nd year past paper-style practice.
GIT, Integration of Met. & Nutrition MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGIT, Integration of Met. & Nutrition
1. In an undeveloped area, children had severe protein deficiency and only cassava consumption. What is this condition?
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Scurvy
Beriberi
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Kwashiorkor.
Kwashiorkor is protein malnutrition with reasonable calorie intake (high-carbohydrate, low-protein diet like cassava), presenting with edema and fatty liver.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGIT, Integration of Met. & Nutrition
2. Which one of the following best describes the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)?
Average intake to prevent nutrient deficiency
Estimated energy requirement
Lowest intake observed in a population
Maximum safe intake level
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Average intake to prevent nutrient deficiency.
RDA is the average daily intake sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97-98%) healthy individuals.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGIT, Integration of Met. & Nutrition
3. What is the recommended percentage of daily calories from fat in a balanced diet?
5--10
10--20
20--35
40--60
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 20--35.
Dietary guidelines recommend that 20-35% of total calories come from fat.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGIT, Integration of Met. & Nutrition
4. Condition in which BMR is increased?
Hypothyroidism
Starvation
Hyperthyroidism
Sleep
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Hyperthyroidism.
Thyroid hormones are the primary regulators of basal metabolic rate (BMR). Hyperthyroidism increases BMR.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGIT, Integration of Met. & Nutrition
5. Which food has a low glycemic index?
White bread
Baked potato
Lentils
Cornflakes
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Lentils.
Lentils are high in fiber and protein, slowing carbohydrate digestion and absorption, resulting in a lower glycemic index.
Genitourinary Biochemistry MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGenitourinary Biochemistry
1. Respiratory alkalosis is caused by?
Hypoventilation
Hyperventilation
Renal HCO3- loss
Lactic acidosis
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Hyperventilation.
Hyperventilation causes excessive CO2 loss, decreasing PaCO2 and increasing pH (respiratory alkalosis).
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGenitourinary Biochemistry
2. What is the major ECF buffer?
Phosphate system
Hemoglobin
Bicarbonate/Carbonic acid system
Protein system (Albumin)
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Bicarbonate/Carbonic acid system.
The bicarbonate system is the major ECF buffer. Hemoglobin is a major *intracellular* buffer in RBCs.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGenitourinary Biochemistry
3. Which statement best explains haemoglobin's role as a buffer?
It binds hydrogen ions during CO2 transport
It neutralizes lactic acid directly
It increases bicarbonate reabsorption
It converts oxygen to water
Show answer
Correct answer: A. It binds hydrogen ions during CO2 transport.
Deoxygenated hemoglobin (HHb) is a better proton acceptor. It binds H+ generated from CO2 conversion in RBCs, minimizing pH change (isohydric shift).
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGenitourinary Biochemistry
4. Which is the main function of the phosphate buffer in renal tubules?
To enhance water reabsorption
To trap H+ ions for excretion as titratable acid
To maintain sodium balance
To transport CO2
Show answer
Correct answer: B. To trap H+ ions for excretion as titratable acid.
Dibasic phosphate (HPO4^2-) in tubular fluid accepts H+ to form monobasic phosphate (H2PO4-), allowing excretion of acid without excessively lowering urine pH.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryGenitourinary Biochemistry
5. A patient with chronic kidney disease has metabolic acidosis with low serum HCO3-. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely associated?
Hyperkalemia
Hypernatremia
Hypocalcemia
Hypophosphatemia
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Hyperkalemia.
Renal failure impairs both H+ and K+ excretion. Acidosis also promotes K+ shift out of cells.
Neuro, Nucleotides and Genetics MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryNeuro, Nucleotides and Genetics
1. What is the function of CREB?
Recruitment of transcription regulatory factors, activating transcription
DNA replication initiation
Translation elongation
RNA splicing
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Recruitment of transcription regulatory factors, activating transcription.
CREB (cAMP Response Element-Binding protein) is a transcription factor. When phosphorylated, it binds to CRE sequences and recruits coactivators like CBP to stimulate transcription of target genes.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryNeuro, Nucleotides and Genetics
2. Which promoter sequence is recognized by RNA polymerase II in eukaryotes?
Shine-Dalgarno
TATA box
Pribnow box
GC box
Show answer
Correct answer: B. TATA box.
The TATA box is a core promoter element for RNA Pol II. The GC box is an upstream regulatory element.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryNeuro, Nucleotides and Genetics
3. DNA fingerprinting/VNTR analysis uses?
Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) in genomic DNA
Restriction enzymes and Southern blotting/PCR
Both A and B
Protein electrophoresis
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Both A and B.
DNA fingerprinting traditionally used RFLP analysis of VNTR loci. Modern methods use PCR amplification of Short Tandem Repeats (STRs).
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryNeuro, Nucleotides and Genetics
4. Which type of DNA is commonly used in forensic and paternity testing due to its high mutation rate and maternal inheritance?
Mitochondrial DNA
Nuclear DNA (STRs)
Plasmid DNA
Ribosomal DNA
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Mitochondrial DNA.
mtDNA is maternally inherited, has a high copy number, and a higher mutation rate in non-coding regions (D-loop), making it useful for tracing maternal lineage and analyzing degraded samples.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryNeuro, Nucleotides and Genetics
5. A diabetic patient uses short-acting insulin lispro. Reversing lysine and proline residues on the beta chain allows rapid absorption. Which technology is used to engineer this drug?
Cloning
DNA fingerprinting
Polymers ase Chain Reaction
Site-directed mutagenesis
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Site-directed mutagenesis.
Insulin lispro is created by specifically changing the sequence of the human insulin gene to swap two amino acids, a process achieved through site-directed mutagenesis.
Endocrinology and Molecular Insights MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryEndocrinology and Molecular Insights
1. Transferrin receptor activity in case of iron deficiency?
Increases (to enhance iron uptake)
Decreases
Remains unchanged
First increases then decreases
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Increases (to enhance iron uptake).
In iron deficiency, cellular iron levels are low, leading to stabilization of iron-responsive element-binding proteins (IRE-BPs). This increases translation of transferrin receptor mRNA, resulting in more receptors on the cell surface to capture more iron from transferrin.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryEndocrinology and Molecular Insights
2. A 55-year-old man with unintentional weight loss, abdominal discomfort, jaundice, and hepatomegaly. Which tumor marker is most useful?
CA-125
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
The presentation suggests hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). AFP is the primary serum marker for HCC.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryEndocrinology and Molecular Insights
3. A 32-year-old woman with recurrent early pregnancy losses has inadequate progesterone production. Which function of progesterone explains her condition?
Increases uterine contractions
Maintains endometrium and suppresses uterine contractility
Stimulates follicular development
Enhances bone mineralization
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Maintains endometrium and suppresses uterine contractility.
During the luteal phase, progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum transforms the endometrium into a secretory state suitable for implantation and maintains uterine quiescence. Deficiency leads to luteal phase defect and early pregnancy loss.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryEndocrinology and Molecular Insights
4. A 27-year-old woman with infertility has a mutation in aromatase. Which biochemical change is most likely?
Accumulation of androgens with decreased estrogen production
Increased conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone
Increased progesterone synthesis
Accumulation of cortisol
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Accumulation of androgens with decreased estrogen production.
Aromatase (CYP19) converts androgens (androstenedione, testosterone) to estrogens (estrone, estradiol). Deficiency leads to androgen excess and estrogen deficiency, causing virilization and anovulation.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSBiochemistryEndocrinology and Molecular Insights
5. A 55-year-old man presents with difficulty urinating, weak stream, increased nocturia, enlarged prostate. Which enzyme activity is most directly responsible?
Aromatase
5α-reductase
Cholesterol desmolase
21-hydroxylase
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 5α-reductase.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is driven by dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is formed from testosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase within the prostate.
NUMS 2nd year MBBS
Physiology sample MCQs
6 chapters with 30 free sample MCQs for NUMS 2nd year past paper-style practice.
Gastrointestinal system MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGastrointestinal system
1. In chronic pancreatitis, there is ileal damage and bile acid malabsorption. What is a potential consequence?
Gallstone development due to lack of bile acid recycling
Jejunum blockage due to lack of nutrient absorption
Increased gastric emptying and dumping syndrome
Fat malabsorption and steatorrhea
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Fat malabsorption and steatorrhea.
While not a typical direct consequence of pancreatitis, the question implies bile acid malabsorption. Bile acids are necessary for micelle formation and fat absorption. Their malabsorption leads to fat malabsorption and steatorrhea. Impaired recycling can also alter bile composition, but steatorrhea is the direct consequence.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGastrointestinal system
2. Which of the following is the primary mechanism for activating pancreatic zymogens within the intestinal lumen?
Acid secretion of the stomach
Activity of enterokinase
Presence of bile acids
Alkaline pH
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Activity of enterokinase.
Enterokinase (enteropeptidase), an enzyme on the brush border of duodenal enterocytes, cleaves trypsinogen to active trypsin. Trypsin then activates all other pancreatic proenzymes. This is the critical activation step.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGastrointestinal system
3. A 45-year-old lady presents with symptoms of upper GI discomfort, feeling of heartburn, dysphagia, water brash, and regurgitation. Barium swallow shows a defect in the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). Which condition is this?
Acute Gastritis
Barrett's Esophagus
Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
Mega-esophagus (Achalasia)
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD).
This symptom complex is classic for GERD. A defective LES (hypotensive or inappropriately relaxed) is the key pathophysiological defect, allowing reflux of gastric contents.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGastrointestinal system
4. A patient with a peptic ulcer is found to have a mutation causing hypertrophy of parietal cells. Which hormone's action is most directly responsible for stimulating this growth and increased acid secretion?
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Gastrin
Secretin
Somatostatin
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Gastrin.
Gastrin has a trophic effect on the gastric mucosa, particularly the parietal cells. Chronic excess gastrin (e.g., in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome) leads to parietal cell hyperplasia and hypertrophy, resulting in extreme hypersecretion of acid.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGastrointestinal system
5. The enterogastric reflex can be elicited by which of the following stimuli in the duodenum?
Alkaline chyme
Distension of the duodenum
Gastrin release
Isotonic chyme
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Distension of the duodenum.
The enterogastric reflex is primarily triggered by distension of the duodenum, as well as by the presence of irritants, acid, or hypertonic chyme. Afferent signals travel to the CNS and efferent sympathetic signals inhibit gastric motility and secretion.
Genitourinary system MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGenitourinary system
1. Which part of the renal tubule would have the lowest tubular fluid osmolality in a patient with a complete lack of ADH (central diabetes insipidus)?
End of the collecting duct (final urine)
Bottom of the descending Loop of Henle
End of the proximal tubule
Early distal tubule
Show answer
Correct answer: A. End of the collecting duct (final urine).
In the absence of ADH, the collecting duct is impermeable to water. Tubular fluid becomes progressively more dilute as it passes through the thick ascending limb and distal tubule (diluting segments). Since no water can be reabsorbed in the collecting duct, the final urine remains very dilute (hypotonic, ~50 mOsm/L), which will be the point of lowest osmolality.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGenitourinary system
2. An elderly patient with hypernatremia (plasma [Na+] = 167 mmol/L) has high plasma ADH and high plasma aldosterone, but urine osmolality is 1200 mOsm/L and urine [Na+] is 600 mmol/L. What is the most likely cause of hypernatremia?
Dehydration from decreased fluid intake
Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion (SIADH)
Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Primary aldosteronism
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Dehydration from decreased fluid intake.
The lab findings indicate appropriate renal responses: high ADH (trying to conserve water), high aldosterone (trying to retain Na+ and volume), and a concentrated urine (1200 mOsm/L). The high urine [Na+] suggests the kidneys are effectively conserving sodium. This pattern is most consistent with hypernatremia due to pure water loss (e.g., from inadequate intake), where the kidneys are responding appropriately but cannot compensate for the lack of water intake.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGenitourinary system
3. Which of the following would be expected to cause hypokalemia, at least in part, by stimulating K+ uptake into cells?
Aldosterone deficiency (Addison's disease)
Insulin deficiency
Metabolic alkalosis
Strenuous exercise
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Metabolic alkalosis.
Metabolic alkalosis causes H+ to move out of cells. To maintain electroneutrality, K+ moves into cells, lowering plasma K+ concentration (hypokalemia). Insulin promotes cellular K+ uptake, so its deficiency can contribute to hyperkalemia. Aldosterone deficiency impairs K+ secretion, causing hyperkalemia. Strenuous exercise causes K+ to leak out of muscle cells, raising plasma K+.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGenitourinary system
4. When dietary K+ intake increases, body K+ balance is maintained primarily by:
Decreasing glomerular filtration of K+
Decreasing proximal tubule K+ reabsorption
Decreasing K+ reabsorption in the thick ascending limb
Increasing K+ secretion by the late distal and collecting tubules
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Increasing K+ secretion by the late distal and collecting tubules.
The primary renal mechanism for maintaining K+ balance is regulated secretion in the late distal tubule and collecting duct (principal cells). Increased plasma K+ directly stimulates aldosterone secretion and also directly stimulates principal cells, enhancing K+ secretion to match intake.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyGenitourinary system
5. Tubular fluid that passes through the lumen of the early distal tubule (at the macula densa) is typically:
Hypertonic in antidiuresis
Hypertonic when the nephron's own GFR decreases by 50%
Isotonic to plasma
Hypotonic to plasma
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Hypotonic to plasma.
The thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle actively reabsorbs NaCl without water, making the tubular fluid hypotonic (~100 mOsm/L) as it enters the early distal tubule. This is true regardless of hydration state. The macula densa cells in this segment sense the NaCl concentration of this hypotonic fluid.
Sensory Nervous system MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySensory Nervous system
1. Tinnitus, the perception of sound (like ringing) in the absence of an external stimulus, often results from damage to which structure?
Cochlea or auditory nerve (peripheral) or central auditory pathways
Tympanic membrane
Ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes)
Vestibular apparatus
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Cochlea or auditory nerve (peripheral) or central auditory pathways.
Tinnitus can be caused by peripheral damage (e.g., noise-induced hair cell loss in the cochlea, ototoxicity, acoustic neuroma on CN VIII) or by central changes in the auditory pathway (e.g., increased spontaneous neural activity, loss of inhibition). It is a symptom, not a disease itself.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySensory Nervous system
2. A 10-year-old child with congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis (CIPA) frequently suffers fractures and burns without noticing. This condition is most likely due to a mutation affecting:
Myelination of Aβ fibers
Development and function of nociceptive neurons (e.g., TrkA receptor for NGF)
Sodium channels in muscle spindles
Dopamine synthesis in the substantia nigra
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Development and function of nociceptive neurons (e.g., TrkA receptor for NGF).
CIPA is a hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathy (HSAN type IV). It is caused by mutations in the NTRK1 gene, which encodes the TrkA receptor for Nerve Growth Factor (NGF). This disrupts the development and survival of nociceptive neurons and sympathetic postganglionic neurons, leading to pain insensitivity and anhidrosis (inability to sweat).
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySensory Nervous system
3. The phenomenon where a constant smell sensation fades over time, even though the odorant is still present, is an example of:
Receptor adaptation only
Central adaptation (sensory adaptation at the cortical level)
Conduction deafness
Phantom sensation
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Central adaptation (sensory adaptation at the cortical level).
Olfactory adaptation is rapid and profound. While some adaptation occurs at the receptor level, the primary mechanism is central adaptation in the olfactory cortex. This prevents the olfactory system from being overwhelmed by constant background odors, allowing it to detect new smells.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySensory Nervous system
4. A patient presents with episodes of severe burning pain, redness, and swelling in a limb, often triggered by minor stimuli. This description is most consistent with:
Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) Type I
Trigeminal neuralgia
Phantom limb pain
Migraine headache
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) Type I.
Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) Type I (formerly reflex sympathetic dystrophy) often follows minor injury. It involves severe, disproportionate pain (burning, allodynia), autonomic dysfunction (redness, swelling, temperature changes), and trophic changes. Its exact pathophysiology is complex but involves peripheral and central sensitization, and sometimes autonomic dysregulation.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySensory Nervous system
5. Neurofibromatosis type 1 (von Recklinghausen's disease) is characterized by café-au-lait spots and neurofibromas. It is caused by a mutation in a gene on chromosome 17 that normally functions as a:
Growth factor receptor
Tumor suppressor gene (neurofibromin)
Ion channel protein
Cytoskeletal protein
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Tumor suppressor gene (neurofibromin).
NF1 is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17, which encodes neurofibromin, a protein that functions as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for Ras. It acts as a tumor suppressor, and its loss leads to uncontrolled cell growth in neural tissues.
Motor Nervous system MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyMotor Nervous system
1. The final common pathway for all voluntary motor activity is the:
Corticospinal tract neuron
Alpha motor neuron
Purkinje cell of the cerebellum
Thalamocortical neuron
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Alpha motor neuron.
Sir Charles Sherrington termed the alpha motor neuron the "final common pathway" of the motor system. All neural inputs—from the cortex, basal ganglia, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal reflexes—must ultimately converge on and influence the activity of the α-motor neuron to produce movement. Its axon directly innervates skeletal muscle.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyMotor Nervous system
2. A drug that blocks the active reuptake of norepinephrine into the presynaptic terminal (e.g., cocaine) would be expected to:
Decrease sympathetic effects
Potentiate and prolong sympathetic effects
Have no effect on autonomic function
Activate parasympathetic effects
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Potentiate and prolong sympathetic effects.
Blocking the norepinephrine transporter (NET) prevents the reuptake of released norepinephrine from the synaptic cleft. This leads to increased concentration and duration of action of NE on postsynaptic adrenergic receptors, thereby potentiating and prolonging sympathetic effects.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyMotor Nervous system
3. The neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction that acts on nicotinic receptors to trigger an end-plate potential is:
Acetylcholine (ACh)
Norepinephrine (NE)
Glutamate
GABA
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Acetylcholine (ACh).
Acetylcholine (ACh) is the sole neurotransmitter released from motor neuron terminals at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ). It binds to nicotinic cholinergic receptors (Nm) on the motor end plate, causing a depolarizing end-plate potential (EPP) that triggers a muscle action potential.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyMotor Nervous system
4. A 30-year-old woman presents with episodic weakness, starting in the legs and progressing to the arms, but sparing ocular and respiratory muscles. Serum potassium is low during attacks. The most likely diagnosis is:
Myasthenia gravis
Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Muscular dystrophy
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
Hypokalemic periodic paralysis is an autosomal dominant channelopathy (often involving Ca2+ or Na+ channels) that causes episodic flaccid weakness triggered by factors like carbohydrate load, rest after exercise, or stress. Attacks are associated with low serum potassium due to a shift into cells. It typically spares bulbar and respiratory muscles.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyMotor Nervous system
5. The Babinski sign (extensor plantar response) is a classic sign of:
Cerebellar dysfunction
Upper motor neuron lesion
Lower motor neuron lesion
Peripheral neuropathy
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Upper motor neuron lesion.
The Babinski sign (dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of the other toes upon stroking the lateral sole) is a pathological reflex indicating disruption of the corticospinal (pyramidal) tract (an UMN lesion). In adults, it replaces the normal flexor plantar response.
Endocrinology MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyEndocrinology
1. The primary function of testosterone in males is:
Promote spermatogenesis
Development and maintenance of male secondary sexual characteristics
Inhibit FSH secretion
Stimulate Sertoli cell function
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Development and maintenance of male secondary sexual characteristics.
While testosterone supports spermatogenesis, its primary function is the development and maintenance of male secondary sexual characteristics (body hair, deep voice, muscle mass, libido) and the male reproductive organs. (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyEndocrinology
2. A 27-year-old woman with infertility has a mutation in the aromatase enzyme. What is the most likely biochemical profile?
Accumulation of androgens with decreased estrogen production
Increased conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone
Increased progesterone synthesis
Accumulation of cortisol
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Accumulation of androgens with decreased estrogen production.
Aromatase converts androgens (androstenedione and testosterone) to estrogens (estrone and estradiol). A deficiency would lead to accumulation of androgens and severely decreased estrogen levels, causing virilization, primary amenorrhea, and infertility. (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyEndocrinology
3. A 55-year-old man presents with difficulty urinating and an enlarged prostate. Which enzyme activity is most directly responsible for the prostatic growth?
Aromatase
5α-reductase
Cholesterol desmolase
21-hydroxylase
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 5α-reductase.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is driven by dihydrotestosterone (DHT), a potent androgen. Testosterone is converted to DHT within the prostate by the enzyme 5α-reductase. Inhibitors of this enzyme (e.g., finasteride) are used to treat BPH. (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyEndocrinology
4. A professional athlete in her mid-20s has not had a menstrual period for 5 years but has normal bone density. What is the most likely explanation?
She consumes a high-carbohydrate diet.
Her body fat percentage is very low, causing hypothalamic amenorrhea.
Her plasma estrogen is very low.
She has been taking anabolic steroid supplements.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. She has been taking anabolic steroid supplements.
Exercise-induced amenorrhea (hypothalamic) typically causes low estrogen and can lead to osteoporosis. The fact that her bone density is normal despite 5 years of amenorrhea suggests an alternative source of steroids is supporting bone mass. Anabolic steroid use provides androgens that can be aromatized to estrogens or directly support bone, preventing osteoporosis while suppressing the HPG axis and causing amenorrhea. (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologyEndocrinology
5. A young woman is given daily injections starting on day 16 of her cycle for 2 weeks, and she does not menstruate. The injected substance could be:
Testosterone
FSH
An inhibitor of progesterone action
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG).
Injections starting after ovulation (day 16) that prevent menstruation mimic the action of a pregnancy. hCG rescues and maintains the corpus luteum, prolonging its secretion of estrogen and progesterone, which maintains the endometrium and prevents menstruation. This is the basis of the pregnancy test. (Guyton & Hall)
Special senses MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySpecial senses
1. Which substance is most likely to elicit a bitter taste sensation?
Glucose
Hydrochloric acid
Quinine
Sodium chloride
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Quinine.
Bitter taste is often triggered by alkaloids and toxic substances as a protective mechanism. Quinine is a classic bitter-tasting compound. Sour is elicited by acids (HCl), sweet by sugars (glucose), and salty by metal ions (NaCl). (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySpecial senses
2. A patient suffers damage to the facial nerve (CN VII) proximal to the geniculate ganglion. Which special sense is likely to be impaired?
Hearing (hyperacusis)
Taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue
Vestibular sensation
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
Taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue travel with the lingual nerve (CN V3) then join the chorda tympani, which carries them to the facial nerve (CN VII). A lesion proximal to the geniculate ganglion would affect these taste fibers. (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySpecial senses
3. Olfactory receptor cells are classified as which type of neuron?
Bipolar neurons
Fibroblasts
Multipolar neurons
Pseudounipolar neurons
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Bipolar neurons.
Olfactory receptor cells are bipolar neurons. Their peripheral process ends in olfactory cilia in the nasal mucosa, and their central axon projects through the cribriform plate to the olfactory bulb. They are unique as they are true neurons that are continuously replaced. (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySpecial senses
4. Which structure in the inner ear is responsible for separating sound frequencies (tonotopic organization)?
Basilar membrane
Organ of Corti
Tectorial membrane
Vestibular membrane (Reissner's membrane)
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Basilar membrane.
The basilar membrane varies in width and stiffness from base (narrow, stiff) to apex (wide, flexible). High-frequency sounds cause maximal vibration near the base, and low-frequency sounds near the apex. This tonotopic organization is the basis for frequency discrimination. (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBSPhysiologySpecial senses
5. What is the primary function of the attenuation reflex (contraction of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles) in the middle ear?
Correct answer: B. Protect the inner ear from damage by loud sounds.
The attenuation reflex (acoustic reflex) is activated by loud sounds (>70 dB). Contraction of the stapedius and tensor tympani stiffens the ossicular chain, reducing sound transmission to the inner ear and protecting the cochlea from damage. (Guyton & Hall)
NUMS 2nd year MBBS
Anatomy sample MCQs
8 chapters with 40 free sample MCQs for NUMS 2nd year past paper-style practice.
Abdomen and pelvis (Abdomen) MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and pelvis (Abdomen)
1. Which structure forms a "shelf" supporting the spleen?
Coronary ligament
Phrenicocolic ligament
Gastrocolic ligament
Splenorenal ligament
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Phrenicocolic ligament.
The phrenicocolic ligament extends from the splenic flexure of colon to diaphragm, forming a "shelf" that supports the spleen and prevents its inferior displacement.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and pelvis (Abdomen)
2. Splenic vessels and tail of pancreas are enclosed in which ligament?
Gastrosplenic ligament
Phrenicocolic ligament
Splenorenal (lienorenal) ligament
Gastrocolic ligament
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Splenorenal (lienorenal) ligament.
The splenorenal ligament extends from left kidney to spleen, containing the splenic vessels and pancreatic tail. This must be ligated carefully during splenectomy to avoid pancreatic injury.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and pelvis (Abdomen)
3. The spleen develops from:
Endoderm of foregut
Ventral mesentery
Dorsal mesentery (mesogastrium)
Intermediate mesoderm
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Dorsal mesentery (mesogastrium).
The spleen develops from mesenchymal cells in the dorsal mesogastrium during the 5th week. It is not derived from gut endoderm but from mesoderm within this mesentery.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and pelvis (Abdomen)
4. Which artery supplies blood to the tail of the pancreas?
Gastroduodenal artery
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
Superior mesenteric artery
Splenic artery (via pancreatic branches)
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Splenic artery (via pancreatic branches).
The splenic artery gives off multiple pancreatic branches (including the great pancreatic artery) that supply the body and tail of pancreas. The head is supplied by pancreaticoduodenal arcades.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and pelvis (Abdomen)
5. A 2-year-old child with vomiting and upper abdominal pain is diagnosed with intestinal obstruction due to complete encircling of the duodenum. This is caused by:
Annular pancreas
Ectopic spleen
Persistent vitellointestinal duct
Pyloric stenosis
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Annular pancreas.
Annular pancreas is a congenital anomaly where pancreatic tissue encircles the second part of duodenum, causing duodenal obstruction. It results from abnormal rotation of the ventral pancreatic bud.
Abdomen and Pelvis (pelvis & perineum) MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and Pelvis (pelvis & perineum)
1. A 1-year-old with intussusception. Most likely cause in children:
Enlarged Peyer's patches in ileum
Mesentery not fully developed / increased bowel mobility
Meckel's diverticulum
Cecal tumor
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Mesentery not fully developed / increased bowel mobility.
Pediatric intussusception is often idiopathic but associated with lymphoid hyperplasia (e.g., after viral infection) acting as a lead point. The ileocecal region is most common due to anatomical mobility.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and Pelvis (pelvis & perineum)
2. Bilious vomiting due to failure of recanalization of:
Esophagus
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Duodenum.
Duodenal atresia results from failed recanalization of the duodenal lumen (solid cord stage). It presents with bilious vomiting in newborns and is associated with trisomy 21. "Double bubble" on X-ray.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and Pelvis (pelvis & perineum)
3. Primitive gut is derived from which embryonic layer?
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Neural crest
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Endoderm.
The epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract develops from endoderm. Connective tissue, muscle, and serosa come from splanchnic mesoderm.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and Pelvis (pelvis & perineum)
4. Midgut attaches to yolk sac via:
Allantois
Vitelline duct (omphalomesenteric duct)
Urachus
Cloacal membrane
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Vitelline duct (omphalomesenteric duct).
The vitelline duct connects the midgut to the yolk sac during development. Its persistence leads to Meckel's diverticulum (rule of 2's).
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyAbdomen and Pelvis (pelvis & perineum)
5. Embryo diagram shows:
Horseshoe kidney
Gastroschisis
Omphalocele
Diaphragmatic hernia
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Gastroschisis.
Gastroschisis is paraumbilical defect with exposed bowel (no membrane), usually right-sided. Omphalocele has membrane-covered herniation at umbilicus.
Neuroanatomy MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNeuroanatomy
1. Which foramen transmits the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus into the cranial cavity?
Foramen Rotundum
Foramen Ovale
Carotid Canal (opens into foramen lacerum)
Foramen Spinosum
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Carotid Canal (opens into foramen lacerum).
The internal carotid artery enters the skull through the carotid canal in the temporal bone, passes over (not through) the foramen lacerum, and enters the cavernous sinus.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNeuroanatomy
2. A patient with increased intracranial pressure shows papilledema. The increased pressure is transmitted from the subarachnoid space around the optic nerve to the retinal veins via which communication?
Cavernous Sinus
Subarachnoid Space extension
Superior Ophthalmic Vein
Central Retinal Artery
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Subarachnoid Space extension.
The optic nerve is surrounded by an extension of the intracranial subarachnoid space. Increased intracranial pressure is transmitted along this space, compressing the central retinal vein and causing papilledema.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNeuroanatomy
3. Which dural venous sinus runs along the attached margin of the falx cerebri and typically receives the great cerebral vein (of Galen)?
Superior Sagittal Sinus
Inferior Sagittal Sinus
Straight Sinus
Transverse Sinus
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Straight Sinus.
The straight sinus runs along the line of attachment of the falx cerebri to the tentorium cerebelli. It receives the great cerebral vein (of Galen) and the inferior sagittal sinus.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNeuroanatomy
4. The diaphragma sellae is a dural fold that covers which structure?
Foramen Magnum
Pituitary Gland
Cerebellum
Olfactory Bulbs
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Pituitary Gland.
The diaphragma sellae is a small, circular horizontal fold of dura that forms a roof over the sella turcica, covering the pituitary gland. The pituitary stalk passes through its central opening.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNeuroanatomy
5. A patient presents with a "crescent-shaped" (concave) hematoma that crosses suture lines on CT scan. This is characteristic of which type of hemorrhage?
Epidural Hematoma
Subdural Hematoma
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
Intracerebral Hemorrhage
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Subdural Hematoma.
Subdural hematomas result from tearing of bridging veins between the brain surface and dural sinuses. Blood collects in the potential space between the dura and arachnoid mater, forming a crescent-shaped collection that can cross suture lines.
Head and Neck MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyHead and Neck
1. The "head" of the pancreas lies within the curve of the:
Stomach
Duodenum (C-shaped)
Jejunum
Spleen
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Duodenum (C-shaped).
The pancreatic head is nestled in the C-shaped concavity of the duodenum. This close relationship means pancreatic cancer can obstruct the duodenum or bile duct.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyHead and Neck
2. Insulin from β-cells is secreted directly into:
Pancreatic ducts
Islet capillaries (endocrine secretion)
Intestinal lumen
Lymphatics
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Islet capillaries (endocrine secretion).
As an endocrine gland, pancreatic islet cells secrete hormones (insulin, glucagon) directly into blood capillaries within the islets, not into ducts.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyHead and Neck
3. Which embryonic structure gives rise to both the endocrine and exocrine pancreas?
Foregut endoderm
Pancreatic buds (ventral and dorsal) from duodenal endoderm
Hepatic diverticulum
Vitelline duct
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Pancreatic buds (ventral and dorsal) from duodenal endoderm.
Both pancreatic components arise from endodermal outgrowths of the duodenum: dorsal bud (most of pancreas) and ventral bud (uncinate process and part of head).
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyHead and Neck
4. The blood supply to the pancreatic islets is characterized by:
Poor vascularization
Rich fenestrated capillaries
Arteriovenous shunts
Portal circulation to liver first
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Rich fenestrated capillaries.
Islets have a rich network of fenestrated capillaries that allow rapid hormone secretion into bloodstream. They receive arterial blood from pancreatic branches.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyHead and Neck
5. Which pancreatic islet cells secrete glucagon?
Alpha (α) cells
Beta (β) cells
Delta (δ) cells
F cells (PP cells)
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Alpha (α) cells.
α-cells (15-20% of islet cells) secrete glucagon, which raises blood glucose. β-cells (65-80%) secrete insulin; δ-cells (3-10%) secrete somatostatin; F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.
Digestive and Genitourinary system MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyDigestive and Genitourinary system
1. The sinovaginal bulbs form which structure?
Upper vagina
Lower vagina
Cervix
Hymen
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Lower vagina.
The sinovaginal bulbs (from urogenital sinus) proliferate to form the vaginal plate, which canalizes to form the lower vagina. Upper vagina comes from Müllerian ducts.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyDigestive and Genitourinary system
2. Horseshoe kidney results from:
Fusion of lower poles during ascent
Fusion of upper poles during ascent
Ectopic kidney position
Pelvic kidney arrest
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Fusion of lower poles during ascent.
Horseshoe kidney results from fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys as they ascend from pelvis, arrested by inferior mesenteric artery.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyDigestive and Genitourinary system
3. Dorsal urethral opening on the penis results from:
Failure of closure of urethral folds
Failure of enlargement of urethral plate
Abnormal genital tubercle position
Persistent cloacal membrane
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Abnormal genital tubercle position.
Epispadias (dorsal urethral opening) is due to abnormal positioning of the genital tubercle and failure of urethral fold closure, often associated with bladder exstrophy.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyDigestive and Genitourinary system
4. Urinary extravasation into the scrotum suggests:
Hypospadias
Epispadias
Hydrocele
Varicocele
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Hypospadias.
Hypospadias (urethral opening on ventral penis) can cause urinary extravasation. Due to incomplete fusion of urethral folds.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyDigestive and Genitourinary system
5. Labia minora develop from:
Urethral folds
Labioscrotal swellings
Genital tubercle
Cloacal membrane
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Urethral folds.
Labia minora develop from the urethral folds (which fuse in males to form penile urethra). Labia majora from labioscrotal swellings.
Nervous System MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous System
1. Synaptic vesicles contain:
Neurotransmitters
CSF
Blood proteins
Myelin proteins
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Neurotransmitters.
Synaptic vesicles store neurotransmitters for release into synaptic cleft.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous System
2. Betz cells are found in:
Visual cortex
Motor cortex layer V
Cerebellar cortex
Spinal cord ventral horn
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Motor cortex layer V.
Betz cells are giant pyramidal neurons in primary motor cortex layer V, project to spinal cord.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous System
3. The dentate gyrus is part of:
Cerebellum
Hippocampal formation
Basal ganglia
Thalamus
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Hippocampal formation.
Dentate gyrus is part of hippocampal trisynaptic circuit involved in memory formation.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous System
4. Choroid plexus epithelium is:
Simple squamous
Simple cuboidal/columnar
Stratified squamous
Transitional
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Simple cuboidal/columnar.
Choroid plexus has simple cuboidal/columnar epithelium with tight junctions for CSF production.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous System
5. Ependymal cells line:
Subarachnoid space
Ventricles and central canal
Blood vessels
Peripheral nerves
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Ventricles and central canal.
Ependymal cells line brain ventricles and spinal cord central canal, some are ciliated for CSF flow.
Maxillofacial, special senses and Endocrinology MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyMaxillofacial, special senses and Endocrinology
1. Hassall's corpuscles are found in:
Thymus
Thyroid
Spleen
Lymph nodes
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Thymus.
Hassall's (thymic) corpuscles in thymic medulla are whorls of epithelial reticular cells, sites of T-cell selection.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyMaxillofacial, special senses and Endocrinology
2. Meibomian glands are modified:
Sweat glands
Sebaceous glands
Salivary glands
Lacrimal glands
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Sebaceous glands.
Meibomian (tarsal) glands are sebaceous glands in eyelids secreting lipid layer of tear film.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyMaxillofacial, special senses and Endocrinology
3. The stria vascularis is involved in:
Sound transduction
Endolymph production
Balance maintenance
Tympanic reflex
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Endolymph production.
Stria vascularis in cochlear duct wall produces endolymph (high K+) for hair cell function.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyMaxillofacial, special senses and Endocrinology
4. Which cells secrete aqueous humor?
Corneal endothelial cells
Ciliary body non-pigmented epithelium
Iris melanocytes
Lens epithelium
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Ciliary body non-pigmented epithelium.
Non-pigmented ciliary epithelium secretes aqueous humor into posterior chamber.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyMaxillofacial, special senses and Endocrinology
5. Zona fasciculata cells appear vacuolated due to:
Lipid droplets
Glycogen stores
Water absorption
Protein granules
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Lipid droplets.
Zona fasciculata cells are "spongiocytes" with lipid droplets for steroid hormone synthesis.
Nervous system MCQs5 sample questions
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous system
1. The membranous labyrinth of the inner ear develops from:
Otic placode
Neural crest
Mesoderm
Endoderm
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Otic placode.
The membranous labyrinth (cochlea, vestibule, semicircular canals) develops from the otic placode, a thickened area of surface ectoderm.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous system
2. Which condition involves failure of cranial neural fold fusion?
Hydrocephalus
Anencephaly
Holoprosencephaly
Microcephaly
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Anencephaly.
Anencephaly specifically results from failure of cranial neural fold fusion (anterior neuropore closure), leading to absence of forebrain and calvaria.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous system
3. A lumbosacral cystic swelling containing only meninges indicates:
Meningocele
Myelomeningocele
Myeloschisis
Spina bifida occulta
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Meningocele.
Meningocele involves herniation of meninges only through a vertebral defect, without neural tissue involvement. It's the mildest form of spina bifida cystica.
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous system
4. In the 5th week, the prosencephalon differentiates into:
Mesencephalon and metencephalon
Myelencephalon and rhombencephalon
Rhombencephalon and mesencephalon
Telencephalon and diencephalon
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Telencephalon and diencephalon.
During the 5th week, the primary brain vesicles differentiate: prosencephalon → telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres) and diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus).
NUMS 2nd year MBBSAnatomyNervous system
5. The middle ear cavity develops from which pharyngeal pouch?
First pouch
Second pouch
Third pouch
Fourth pouch
Show answer
Correct answer: A. First pouch.
The middle ear cavity and Eustachian tube develop from the first pharyngeal pouch (tubotympanic recess).
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